Quiz PMP – Project Integration Management
PMP Integration Management — Practice Quiz
Chapter 4 · 20 questions · Charter, change control, lessons learned & closure
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1
A new PMP candidate is asked: 'What is the primary role of a project manager?' Which answer BEST reflects the PMI perspective?
A.To create and maintain the project schedule and ensure the team meets deadlines.
B.To manage the project budget and report financial performance to the sponsor.
C.To perform integration management — pulling all project components, people, processes, and constraints into a cohesive whole.
D.To facilitate communication between the team and stakeholders throughout the project.
PM Role — Integration
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2
A project manager joins a new project and is told 'the project has already started — we're deep in planning.' She discovers no project charter was ever created. What is the MOST significant risk of this situation?
A.The project may not have a detailed WBS, making scope management difficult.
B.The project manager has no formal authority to use organizational resources, and the project lacks official authorization and stakeholder alignment.
C.The project team does not know the project objectives, which could lead to scope creep.
D.The sponsor has not committed funding, so the budget may be insufficient.
Project Charter
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3
During project executing, significant new requirements emerge that would change the project's direction, timeline, and cost by 60%. The project manager considers updating the project charter. What should she do?
A.Update the charter immediately to reflect the new requirements and re-baseline the project.
B.Submit a change request to the CCB to update the charter.
C.Ignore the charter — it is only relevant during initiation.
D.Escalate to the sponsor — a change of this magnitude calls into question whether the project should continue, be replanned, or be replaced by a new project.
Project Charter
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4
A project manager completes the project management plan and presents it to the sponsor for approval. The sponsor says it looks too detailed and suggests moving forward without formal sign-off. What should the project manager insist on?
A.Formal written approval — the project management plan must be bought into, approved, realistic, and formal before execution begins.
B.Accept verbal approval since the sponsor has the authority to make this decision.
C.Proceed with execution while continuing to refine the plan in parallel.
D.Reduce the plan's detail to a level acceptable to the sponsor and then seek approval.
Project Management Plan
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5
A project manager refers to the 'performance measurement baseline' during a status meeting. A team member asks what it includes. What is the correct answer?
A.The cost baseline only — this is the primary tool for measuring project performance.
B.The schedule and cost baselines — these are the two most critical constraints.
C.The scope, schedule, and cost baselines together — all three are required to fully measure project performance.
D.The project management plan in its entirety — all plans contribute to performance measurement.
Performance Measurement Baseline
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6
A functional manager requests a significant scope change to the project. The project manager has not yet evaluated the impact. What should the project manager do FIRST?
A.Submit the change request to the CCB for approval.
B.Evaluate the impact of the change on all project constraints — scope, schedule, cost, quality, risk, and resources.
C.Inform the team of the potential change and ask for their input.
D.Ask the functional manager to submit the change in writing before taking any action.
Change Management — First Step
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7
A customer requests a scope addition that the project manager estimates will add 3 weeks to the schedule. After evaluating the impact, the project manager finds it affects cost (+$15,000) and quality (increased testing required). What is the NEXT step?
A.Approve the change since the customer requested it.
B.Reject the change since it negatively impacts schedule, cost, and quality.
C.Ask the team to find ways to absorb the additional work without impacting the baseline.
D.Identify options — such as fast tracking, crashing, or scope trade-offs — that could reduce the impact, then present the change with options to the CCB or sponsor for a decision.
Change Management — Process
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8
A project manager reviews trend data showing that testing activities are consistently taking 20% longer than estimated. No deadline has been missed yet, but the trend suggests the project will be 3 weeks late if nothing changes. What type of action should the project manager take?
A.Preventive action — the project manager is addressing an anticipated deviation before it becomes an actual problem.
B.Corrective action — the project is already deviating from the plan.
C.Defect repair — the testing process needs to be fixed.
D.No action is needed yet — wait until an actual deviation from the baseline occurs.
Corrective vs Preventive Action
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9
A project team completes a major phase and immediately moves to the next phase without holding a lessons learned session. The project manager says they'll capture lessons learned at project close. What is wrong with this approach?
A.Nothing — capturing lessons learned at close is the standard approach.
B.Lessons learned should be captured at the end of each sprint only, not at phase boundaries.
C.Lessons learned should be captured throughout the project — at phase boundaries, after significant events, and at close — to benefit the current project and the organization.
D.Lessons learned are only required for agile projects.
Lessons Learned
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10
A senior developer has unique expertise in a legacy system that only she understands. She is leaving the organization in two months. The project manager asks her to document her knowledge. She says: 'I've written a complete technical guide, but there are things I do instinctively that I can't easily put into words.' What type of knowledge is she describing, and how should it be transferred?
A.Explicit knowledge — she should be asked to write more detailed documentation.
B.Tacit knowledge — it should be transferred through job shadowing, mentoring, or pairing with another developer who can observe and learn from her.
C.Organizational process asset — it should be stored in the knowledge management system.
D.Configuration management — it should be versioned and stored in the document repository.
Explicit vs Tacit Knowledge
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11
On a large construction project with 200 workers across 15 different work zones, two crews begin working simultaneously in the same confined space without coordination, causing a safety incident. Which project management tool, if implemented, would have BEST prevented this?
A.The communications management plan — all crews should have been briefed on schedules.
B.The risk register — this risk should have been identified and a response planned.
C.The WBS — the work should have been decomposed to ensure separation of activities.
D.The work authorization system — it controls when and by whom each work package is started, preventing unauthorized concurrent work.
Work Authorization System
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12
A team member discovers a better technical approach that would improve product quality and reduce implementation time by 10%. He implements it without telling the project manager. What should the project manager do?
A.Stop the unauthorized change, evaluate its impact on all constraints, and submit a formal change request through the integrated change control process — even if the change seems beneficial.
B.Accept the change since it improves quality and saves time — positive changes don't need approval.
C.Ask the team member to document the change and update the technical specifications retroactively.
D.Praise the initiative but note that future changes should be communicated in advance.
Integrated Change Control
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13
The project management plan has just been formally approved. The project manager schedules a kickoff meeting. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this meeting?
A.To finalize the WBS with the full project team before execution begins.
B.To present the project budget to all stakeholders for transparency.
C.To announce the official start of project execution, ensure all key parties understand the project details and their roles, and secure commitment from everyone involved.
D.To review and address any remaining risks before execution begins.
Kickoff Meeting
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14
A project is 6 months in and has experienced 3 significant unplanned events that required major corrective actions. The sponsor asks the project manager why so many surprises are occurring. What is the MOST likely root cause?
A.The project team is not experienced enough to anticipate problems.
B.Risk management was insufficient during planning — most surprises on a project are risks that were not identified or planned for.
C.The monitoring and controlling process is not effective enough.
D.The project is too complex to be managed effectively.
Monitor and Control
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15
A project's main deliverable has been accepted by the customer, and the technical work is complete. The project manager immediately starts her next assignment. Six months later, the organization realizes it cannot find any final project records, financial closure was never completed, and no formal lessons learned were recorded. What does this situation indicate?
A.This is acceptable — once the customer accepts the deliverable, the project is complete.
B.The project sponsor should have ensured formal closure before releasing the project manager.
C.This is a communications management failure — records should have been shared earlier.
D.The Close Project or Phase process was not completed — formal closure, archiving, financial closure, and lessons learned are required regardless of circumstances.
Close Project
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16
Midway through a project, two team members discover they are working from different versions of the project scope statement, leading to conflicting deliverables. Which component of the project management plan should have prevented this?
A.The configuration management plan — it defines version control, naming conventions, and how project documents are stored and accessed.
B.The communications management plan — it should have specified who receives scope updates.
C.The change management plan — scope changes should have been documented.
D.The scope management plan — it should have defined how the scope statement is maintained.
Configuration Management
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17
On a hybrid project, the product owner approves 15 small scope changes during an iteration without consulting the project manager or sponsor. The project manager raises a concern. When is escalation to the sponsor required in agile change management?
A.Every change must be approved by the sponsor regardless of size.
B.Only when the change introduces a new external dependency.
C.When changes would significantly impact the project's intended benefits, exceed budget or timeline tolerances, or go beyond the product owner's authority.
D.When more than 5 changes occur in a single iteration.
Agile Change Management
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18
During project execution, a quality issue arises that was not anticipated. The project manager is unsure how to handle it. What should she do FIRST?
A.Convene an emergency team meeting to brainstorm solutions.
B.Consult the quality management plan — it should define how quality issues are to be managed and controlled.
C.Submit a change request to the CCB to address the quality deviation.
D.Escalate to the sponsor since quality issues require senior management attention.
Management Plans
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19
An agile project manager notices that team members sitting in the same open-plan space seem to naturally pick up on each other's work, resolve minor issues without formal meetings, and are more aligned than remote team members. Which concept explains this phenomenon?
A.Informal communication — team members are networking effectively.
B.Explicit knowledge sharing — the team is sharing documented information efficiently.
C.Osmotic communication — knowledge and awareness are absorbed naturally through physical proximity to colleagues.
D.Active listening — team members are more attentive in a shared space.
Osmotic Communication
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20
A project is running 15% over budget. The project manager immediately requests additional funding from the sponsor to cover the overrun. What is wrong with this approach?
A.Nothing — requesting additional funding is the appropriate response to a cost overrun.
B.The project manager should first analyze the root cause of the overrun, assess options (scope reduction, re-estimation, efficiency improvements), and present a complete picture to the sponsor before requesting additional funds.
C.The project manager should have submitted a change request through the CCB first.
D.A 15% overrun is within normal tolerance and does not require sponsor involvement.
Situational — Baseline Deviation
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